Birmingham Year 2 Free Demo

What is the potential consequence of aqueductal stenosis, a narrowing of the cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius?

A) Elevated blood pressure
B) Reduced intracranial pressure
C) Cerebral atrophy
D) Hydrocephalus

How is Diabetes Insipidus associated with ADH?

A) Diabetes Insipidus is caused by excessive production of ADH, leading to concentrated urine.
B) Diabetes Insipidus is linked to a deficiency in aldosterone secretion, resulting in polyuria and dehydration.
C) Diabetes Insipidus is characterized by an inability to produce ADH, leading to polyuria, dehydration, and hypovolemia.
D) Diabetes Insipidus is caused by overproduction of V2 receptors, resulting in excessive urine production.

What is Starling’s law of the heart: regulation of SV?

A. It describes the relationship between end-diastolic volume (EDV) and stroke volume (SV).
B. It explains the intrinsic property of cardiac muscle to contract with greater force when stretched before being stimulated to contract.
C. The more the ventricles are filled during diastole, the greater the EDV, and the more the ventricle will be stretched, resulting in greater SV.
D. All of the above.

How do platelets work when there is an injured blood vessel?

A) Platelets generate thrombin, which binds to sub-endothelial collagen.
B) Platelets form aggregates to initiate bleeding and prevent clot formation.
C) Platelets provide a bridge to which red blood cells bind to form a platelet plug.
D) Platelets bind to exposed sub-endothelial collagen through VWF, leading to platelet activation and the formation of a platelet plug.

What is the primary purpose of screening in the context of health?

a) To diagnose diseases in individuals with symptoms
b) To identify apparently healthy individuals at increased risk of a disease
c) To offer treatment for diseases that have already progressed significantly
d) To encourage healthy lifestyle choices

What is an “initiating/gatekeeping mutation” in cancer?

a) A mutation that occurs in the germline cells
b) A mutation that allows cells to proliferate uncontrollably
c) A mutation that occurs in the somatic cells
d) A mutation that controls programmed cell death

How do tumors achieve angiogenesis (hallmark 5)?

a) Tumors encourage the formation of blood vessels by down-regulating pro-angiogenic activators
b) Tumors rely on the existing blood supply for their nutrient and oxygen needs
c) Tumor cells activate endothelial cells to produce anti-angiogenic factors
d) Tumors activate cells to provide pro-angiogenic factors such as VEGF and FG5

What happens at the synapse between the primary sensory neuron and the second-order neuron during stimulation?

A: Inhibitory neurotransmitters are released, preventing the propagation of action potentials
B: Glutamate is released, causing the propagation of action potentials along the second-order neuron
C: The primary sensory neuron directly reaches the brain without synapsing
D: The primary sensory neuron releases excitatory neurotransmitters, enhancing the propagation of action potentials

What are the Rotterdam diagnostic criteria for PCOS?

A) Presence of polycystic ovaries and clinical signs of hyperandrogenism
B) Oligo- or amenorrhea and biochemical signs of hyperandrogenemia
C) Need to meet all three criteria: oligo-/amenorrhea, clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenemia, and polycystic ovaries
D) Need to meet at least two out of three criteria: oligo-/amenorrhea, clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenemia, and polycystic ovaries

What are the non-contraceptive benefits of the intrauterine system (IUS)?

A) Reduced risk of ovarian cancer.
B) Protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
C) Reduced menstrual bleeding and may induce amenorrhea.
D) Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy.

What are the different types of admissions under the Mental Health Act (MHA) for assessment and treatment?

A: Admission for assessment (Section 2), admission for emergency assessment (Section 4), and admission for voluntary treatment (Section 3).
B: Admission for assessment (Section 2), admission for emergency assessment (Section 4), and admission for treatment (Section 3).
C: Admission for emergency assessment (Section 2), admission for assessment (Section 4), and admission for involuntary treatment (Section 3).
D: Admission for voluntary assessment (Section 2), admission for emergency assessment (Section 4), and admission for involuntary treatment (Section 3).

What factors contribute to the vulnerability of migrants to infectious diseases?

a. Different infectious disease profiles in their countries of origin
b. Limited access to healthcare and immunization services during migration
c. Overcrowded and unsanitary living conditions in migrant camps
d. All of the above

Which bone forms the posterior aspect of the nasal septum?

A) Vomer
B) Nasal bone
C) Maxilla bone
D) Zygomatic bone

Birmingham Year 2 Free Demo

Free Demo – Birmingham Year 2

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